Did converts (ger tzedek) in ancient Israel own land?Parashat Metzora+HagadolPesach/PassoverTribe of ConvertsCan a convert (ger tzedek) serve on a beis din to annul a non-convert's vows?May converts migrate to Israel?Where did the converts camp in the desert?Did each tribe of Israel serve a specific purpose?When Moshiach arrives, will each individual Jewish person have their own personal allotment of land?Ger Toshav own land in Eretz Yisrael?Halachically, do Israeli citizens own their land?Is taking control of land by a Jew in Israel a sin if it was not controlled by him before?Ger Tzedek/Tzadik earliest sources and definitionIs a Ger Tzedek who is biologically a son of Nathin permitted to marry a 'regular' Jew?
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Did converts (ger tzedek) in ancient Israel own land?
Parashat Metzora+HagadolPesach/PassoverTribe of ConvertsCan a convert (ger tzedek) serve on a beis din to annul a non-convert's vows?May converts migrate to Israel?Where did the converts camp in the desert?Did each tribe of Israel serve a specific purpose?When Moshiach arrives, will each individual Jewish person have their own personal allotment of land?Ger Toshav own land in Eretz Yisrael?Halachically, do Israeli citizens own their land?Is taking control of land by a Jew in Israel a sin if it was not controlled by him before?Ger Tzedek/Tzadik earliest sources and definitionIs a Ger Tzedek who is biologically a son of Nathin permitted to marry a 'regular' Jew?
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
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filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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show 4 more comments
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
5
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:50
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
|
show 4 more comments
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17k12689
17k12689
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
334
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
5
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:50
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
|
show 4 more comments
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
5
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:50
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
1
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
5
5
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:50
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:50
1
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
|
show 4 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17k12689
17k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
5
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:50
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52